The Weak Law of Large Numbers
Convergence in Probability
The sequence of random variables:
\[X_1,X_2,X_3,...\]converges in probability to a radom variable $X$ if, for any of $\epsilon \gt 0$
\[\lim_{n\to\infty}P(\mid X_n-X\mid \gt \epsilon) = 0\]We write $X_n \stackrel{P}{\rightarrow}X$.
An Integral Notation:
-
Rewrite
\[\int_{0}^{2}f(x)dx = \int_{A}f(x)dx\]Where $A = {x:0 \le x \le 2}$.
Suppose that $X$ has the exponential distribution with rate $\lambda$.
How can we find $P(\mid \sin(X)\mid \gt 1/2)$?
We can have many ways to do it.
- We can define a new random variable $Y=\mid \sin(X)\mid $, try to find its pdf and then
- We can intergrate the pdf for $X$ over the relevant region.
An Inequality:
Let $X$ be a random variable. Let $g$ be a no-negative function and let $c\gt 0$. Then
\[P(g(X) \ge c) \le \frac{E[g(X)]}{c}\]When $g(x) = \mid x\mid $, this is known as Markov’s inequality.
Proof:
\[\begin{align} E[g(X)] &= \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}g(x)f_X(x)dx\\ &= \int_{\{x:g(x)\ge c\}}g(x)f_X(x)dx+\int_{\{x:g(x)\ge c\}}g(x)f_X(x)dx \end{align}\]We know that $g(X)$ is non-negative, so the pdf is also non-negative. So both of these integrands above are none-negative, and there for the integrals are non-negative.
\[\begin{align} E[g(X)] &\ge \int_{\{x:g(x)\ge c\}}g(x)f_X(x)dx\\ &\ge \int_{\{x:g(x)\ge c\}}cf_X(x)dx\\ &= c\int_{\{x:g(x)\ge c\}}f_X(x)dx = cP(g(X) \ge c) \end{align}\]Chebyshev’s Inequality:
Let $X$ be a random variable with mean $\mu$ and variance $\sigma^2 \lt \infty$. Let $k \gt 0$. Then
\[P(\mid X - \mu\mid \ge k\sigma) \le \frac{1}{k^2}\]or, equivalently,
\[P(\mid X - \mu\mid \lt k\sigma) \ge 1-\frac{1}{k^2}\]This is the probability that $X$ is within $k$ standard deivations of its mean.
Proof:
\[\begin{align} P(\mid X - \mu\mid \ge k\sigma) &= P((\underbrace{X-\mu}_{g(x)})^2 \ge \underbrace{k^2\sigma^2}_{c})\\ \le \frac{E[g(X)]}{c}&=\frac{E[(X-\mu^2)^2]}{k^2\sigma^2}=\frac{\sigma^2}{k^2\sigma^2}\\ &= \frac{1}{k^2} \end{align}\]The Weak Law of Large Numbers
Suppose that $X_1,X_2,X_3,…$ is a sequence of iid random variables from any distribution with mean $\mu$ and variance $\sigma^2 \lt \infty$.
Then
\[\bar{X} \stackrel{P}{\rightarrow} \mu\]Proof: Let $\epsilon \gt 0$.
Chebyshev: $P(\mid X - \mu\mid \ge k\sigma) \le \frac{1}{k^2}$
Here:
\[P(\mid \bar{X} - \mu_{\bar{X}}\mid \ge k\sigma_{\bar{X}}) \le \frac{1}{k^2}\] \[P\]Which is:
\[P(\mid \bar{X} - \mu\mid \ge k\sigma/\sqrt{n}) \le \frac{1}{k^2}\]Choose $k$ so that $k\sigma/\sqrt{n} = \epsilon$
\[P(\mid \bar{X} - \mu\mid \ge \epsilon) \le \frac{1}{(\epsilon \sqrt{n}/\sigma)^2} = \frac{\sigma^2}{\epsilon^2n}\]Now we take the limits of both sides w.r.t $n$ as $n$ go to infinity.
\[\lim_{n\to\infty}P(\mid \bar{X}-\mu\mid \ge\epsilon) \le \lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{\sigma^2}{\epsilon^2n}=0\]We can conclude that the limit probability of the left-hand side is at least less than or equal to 0. But it’s probability, so it’s always between 0 and 1, so it must be 0.
\[\lim_{n\to\infty}P(\mid \bar{X}-\mu\mid \ge\epsilon) = 0 \implies \bar{X} \stackrel{P}{\rightarrow} \mu\]Example
\[X_1,X_2,X_3,... \stackrel{iid}{\sim} exp(\text{rate}=\lambda)\]We can say that the sample mean $\bar{X}$ converges in probability to $1/\lambda$.
\[\bar{X} \stackrel{P}{\rightarrow} 1/\lambda\]\[X_1,X_2,X_3,... \stackrel{iid}{\sim} \gamma(\alpha,\beta)\] \[\bar{X} \stackrel{P}{\rightarrow} \alpha/\beta\]